I came across something interesting tonight. After Nephi and his brothers pick up Ishamel and his family and start heading back to camp, there was a majority rebellion.
[As] we journeyed in the wilderness, behold Laman and Lemuel, and two of the daughters of Ishmael, and the two sons of Ishmael and their families, did rebel against us; yea, against me, Nephi, and Sam, and their father, Ishmael, and his wife, and his three other daughters. (1 Ne. 7:6)
A few verses later, after Nephi broke free of the ropes with which his brothers tied him, we read this.
[They] were angry with me again, and sought to lay hands upon me; but behold, one of the daughters of Ishmael, yea, and also her mother, and one of the sons of Ishmael, did plead with my brethren, insomuch that they did soften their hearts; and they did cease striving to take away my life.(1 Ne. 7:19)
So what would cause one of the sons to change his mind?
So what would cause one of the sons to change his mind?
Perhaps one of Nephi’s sisters was hot? (see 2 Ne. 5:6) Or maybe it was a guilt trip from his (jewish) mother. (Easy, now. That’s just a joke.)
I actually suspect that either one of his own sisters or his father or mother convinced him (temporarily, at least) of the divinity of their mission.
Perhaps the man was capable of making his own decisions and this was an example of his free agency in action.
Personally, I think 2 Ne. 5:6 refers to Nephi’s sisters-in-law.
Do we know how many sons Ishmael brought? Is the term “the two sons of Ishmael” in verse 6 inclusive of all the sons, or only of those that were joining in the rebellion? If the latter, then the pleading son could be one who never favored the rebellion in the first place.
I think so.
For example, when referring to some of the daughter (rather than all of them), Nephi says “two of the daughters of Ishmael”. When he refers to the sons, he says just “the two sons of Ishmael”.
I’m not sure what you’re agreeing to when you say, “I think so.”
From your following sentence, you seem to think the term “the two sons” must mean all the sons because an alternate wording is used in referring to the daughters. That’s some evidence, but too thin for my taste.
I was addressing your first question.
To each his own, but it’s more evidence than what you had for your theory. :)
I was just speculating, of course. But the other theory seems to avoid the problem you raise in your question. If the pleading son wasn’t one of the rebellious sons, then we’re not left with the problem of figuring out why one of the rebellious sons suddenly reversed his position.